The act requires the state treasurer to transfer money from certain cash funds to the general fund. On June 12, 2026, the state treasurer is required to transfer $16,747 from the local governmental entity backfill cash fund to the general fund. On June 28, 2026, the state treasurer is required to transfer $5.3 million from the school and child care clean drinking water fund to the general fund. On June 30, 2026, the state treasurer is required to transfer the following amounts to the general fund:$1,057,001 from the scale-up grant fund;$796,959 from the qualified apprenticeship intermediary grant fund;$200,000 from the immediate payment fund;$500,000 from the Colorado uninsured employer fund;$750,000 from the records and reports fund;$9.2 million from the kickstarter program master account, in consultation with collegeinvest;$200,000 from the electronic recording technology fund;$250,000 from the tobacco settlement defense account within the tobacco litigation settlement cash fund;$1 million from the Colorado bureau of investigation identification unit fund;$11 million from the information technology revolving fund;$10 million from the technology risk prevention and response fund;$15 million from the small business recovery and resiliency fund;$1 million from the supplemental state contribution fund;The unexpended and unencumbered balance of the controlled maintenance trust fund;$1 million from the account for the department of public safety within the indirect costs excess recovery fund;$800,000 from the unused state-owned real property fund;$5.4 million from the supplier database cash fund;$215,000 from the fixed-wing and rotary-wing ambulances cash fund;$5,162,373 from the community impact cash fund;$3 million from the mobile home park water quality fund; $7,252,996 from the severance tax operational fund; and$19.4 million from the local government severance tax fund. On July 1, 2026, the state treasurer is required to transfer the following amounts to the general fund:$400,000 from the peace officers behavioral health support and community partnership fund;$117,551 from the child care facility development cash fund;$427,113 from the multidisciplinary crime prevention and crisis intervention grant fund;$111,191 from the law enforcement workforce recruitment, retention, and tuition grant fund;$686,890 from the state's mission for assistance in recruiting and training (SMART) policing grant fund;$15 million from the 'Infrastructure Investment and Jobs Act' cash fund; andAn amount equal to the unexpended and unencumbered balance of the electrifying school buses grant program cash fund minus $799,200. On June 30, 2027, the state treasurer is required to transfer the following amounts to the general fund:$20 million from the information technology revolving fund;The unexpended and unencumbered balance of the decarbonization tax credits administration cash fund; $5 million from the community impact cash fund;$11,150,000 from the severance tax operational fund; and$27.3 million from the local government severance tax fund. On June 30, 2027, and on each June 30 thereafter through June 30, 2033, the state treasurer is required to transfer $400,000 from the mobile home park resident empowerment loan and grant program fund.(Note: This summary applies to this bill as enacted.)

The act transfers $10 million from the tobacco education programs fund to the preschool programs cash fund on June 30, 2027. For the 2026-27 state fiscal year, the act reduces the general fund appropriation to the department of early childhood (department) for the universal preschool program by $10 million and makes a corresponding $10 million appropriation to the department from the preschool programs cash fund for the universal preschool program.(Note: This summary applies to this bill as enacted.)

Section 20 of article X of the state constitution (TABOR) imposes a limitation on the amount of state fiscal year spending. If state fiscal year spending exceeds that limitation, the state is required to refund the amount of state fiscal year spending in excess of that limitation (TABOR refund). Under current law, if the state issues a TABOR refund for a state fiscal year, and the amount of that TABOR refund is greater than the amount of state fiscal year spending in excess of the limitation of state fiscal year spending for the state fiscal year (over-refund), the state reduces the amount of the next available TABOR refund by the amount of the over-refund. Changes in federal tax policy in 2025 reduced the amount of state tax revenue for the 2025 tax year. Due to when this change in federal tax policy was signed into law, it was not reflected in the amount of state fiscal year 2024-25 spending, even though the change impacted the 2025 tax year. Accordingly, if the state controller certifies in September 2026 that state revenues for state fiscal year 2025-26 did not exceed the limitation on the amount of state fiscal year spending for that state fiscal year, the act directs the office of the state controller, in consultation with the office of state planning and budgeting and the department of revenue, to determine the amount of the over-refund for state fiscal year 2024-25, taking into account the impact on state revenues from the federal tax policy change. No more than one-half of this over-refund can offset future TABOR refunds for any single state fiscal year beginning with the 2026-27 state fiscal year. $18,021 is appropriated from the general fund to the legislative department for use by the office of the state auditor to implement the act.(Note: This summary applies to this bill as enacted.)

Current law requires the general assembly to appropriate $650,000 from the general fund to the department of local affairs (department) on July 1, 2026, and $1 million from the general fund to the department on July 1, 2027, to reduce participating employer contributions to a multiple employer health trust for volunteer firefighters and part-time firefighters. The act repeals the appropriation otherwise required on July 1, 2026. Current law requires the general assembly to appropriate money from the general fund to the division of criminal justice in the department of public safety for the purpose of reimbursing a multiple employer health trust for the direct costs of providing cardiac and other health screenings for peace officers as follows:$350,000 for the state fiscal year beginning July 1, 2026; $500,000 for the state fiscal year beginning July 1, 2027; $1 million for the state fiscal year beginning July 1, 2028; andOn each July 1 thereafter, sufficient funds.The act repeals the appropriation otherwise required on July 1, 2026. For the 2026-27 state fiscal year, the general fund appropriation and the reappropriated funds appropriation from the firefighter benefits cash fund to the department of local affairs for firefighter heart and circulatory malfunction benefits are each decreased by $150,000. For the 2026-27 state fiscal year, the general fund appropriation to the department of public safety for use by the division of criminal justice for first responder employer health benefit trusts is decreased by $100,000.(Note: This summary applies to this bill as enacted.)

Under current law, the state treasurer is required to transfer $10.5 million from the general fund to the multimodal transportation and mitigation options fund every July 1 beginning on July 1, 2024, and ending on July 1, 2031. The act eliminates this annual transfer only for 2026, 2027, and 2028. The act decreases the cash funds appropriation from the multimodal transportation and mitigation options fund created in the annual general appropriation act for the 2026-27 state fiscal year made to the department of transportation for multimodal transportation projects by $10.5 million.(Note: This summary applies to this bill as enacted.)

Under current law, 28.9% of the revenue the state collects from the retail delivery fee is credited to the multimodal transportation and mitigation options fund (fund). Of the money from the retail delivery fee that is credited to the fund, currently 85% is allocated to the commission for local multimodal projects and 15% is allocated to the commission for state multimodal projects. Beginning on July 1, 2026, the act changes how the fund allocates and expends retail delivery fee revenue between state and local multimodal projects so that 70% of the fund is allocated to the commission for local multimodal projects and 30% of the fund is allocated to the commission for state multimodal projects.(Note: This summary applies to this bill as enacted.)

Current law requires most state agencies and institutions of higher education that receive an appropriation for capital construction to set aside an amount of money equal to the recorded depreciation of the capital asset that was acquired, repaired, improved, replaced, renovated, or constructed with the appropriation (annual depreciation-lease equivalent payment) to pay for the long-term maintenance costs of the capital asset. Currently, the money that state agencies or institutions of higher education set aside for maintenance costs is credited to the capitol complex renovation fund. The act repeals the annual depreciation-lease equivalent payment requirement. Currently, the department of personnel uses the money in the capitol complex renovation fund (fund) for capital construction needs for existing state-owned buildings in the capitol complex. The act requires the state treasurer to transfer $15,263,000 from the fund to the general fund on June 30, 2026. The act also requires the state treasurer to transfer the remaining balance of the fund on June 30, 2027, to the general fund and then repeals the fund. In addition, the act repeals a reporting requirement in connection with the use of the money in the fund. The act also repeals the capitol complex master plan implementation fund, including its ongoing transfers to the fund. The act decreases multiple cash fund and general fund appropriations made in the annual general appropriation act for the 2026-27 state fiscal year to various state departments for annual depreciation-lease equivalent payments.(Note: This summary applies to this bill as enacted.)

The act repeals the 10-day limit on the number of sick days that an employee in the state personnel system can earn in a fiscal year. In addition, the act increases the number of weeks of military leave allowed to an officer or employee of the state or of any political subdivision, municipal corporation, or other public agency of the state from 3 weeks to 4 weeks per leave year established by the employer.(Note: This summary applies to this bill as enacted.)

The act caps at $400 the amount that a health-care entity or health-care provider may charge for a record request made by a patient's attorney or the attorney of the patient's personal representative pursuant to an authorization in compliance with the federal 'Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996', a valid subpoena, or a valid court order, if the requested record exceeds 664 pages. The health-care entity or health-care provider may charge a reasonable fee above the cap if the record request requires the health-care facility or health-care provider to segregate, withhold, or redact protected health information in order to comply with applicable law or the scope or limitations of the authorization in compliance with the federal 'Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996', a valid subpoena, or a valid court order. Beginning January 1, 2028, and every even-numbered year thereafter, the act requires the $400 limit to be adjusted for inflation. The act requires the requested medical records to be delivered in electronic format if the requestor requests electronic format, the original records are stored in electronic format, and the records are readily producible in electronic format. The act requires the health-care facility or health-care provider to provide the requestor with an invoice for the records provided in response to the record request within 30 days of receiving the request, and the health-care facility or health-care provider must provide the records upon payment of the invoice. If the health-care facility or health-care provider is unable to comply with the request for records within 30 days after the request, the health-care facility or health-care provider must send written notice of a 30-day extension to the requestor. The health-care facility or health-care provider must provide the records to the requestor at no cost if the records were not provided within 30 days or without written notice of an extension, unless the delay is due to a force majeure event. In the case of a force majeure event, the health-care facility or health-care provider must provide written notice to the requestor within 5 business days of becoming aware of the force majeure event. The 30-day time frame to respond to a request for records commences upon resolution of the force majeure event.(Note: This summary applies to this bill as enacted.)

In 2022, the general assembly enacted Senate Bill 22-110, concerning a requirement that a wind-powered energy generation facility be equipped with light mitigating technology (technology), to require an owner or operator of a new wind-powered energy generation facility (facility) to install technology at the facility and to obtain federal aviation administration (FAA) approval before installing the technology. An owner or operator of a facility can request from the governing body of the local government in which the facility is located an extension of up to 24 months to install the technology. The act requires the owner or operator of a facility to also obtain federal communications commission (FCC) approval for installation of the technology and requires that a governing body of a local government grant an owner or operator of a facility an extension of time to install the technology if FAA, FCC, or other federal agency approval is delayed. The act also requires that an extension of time granted by the governing body of a local government is at least 24 months in duration.(Note: This summary applies to this bill as enacted.)

The act addresses security measures for the legislative department and judicial department of state government, for the governor, and for certain elected officials and candidates for elected office. Sections 1 through 4 and sections 6 and 7 of the act create the position of the administrator of legislative safety for the general assembly, address the authority of the Colorado state patrol (state patrol) in the state capitol buildings complex (capitol complex), and change the current position of chief security officer to the sergeant at arms. Specifically, section 1 authorizes the executive committee of the legislative council (executive committee) to, subject to available appropriations, appoint an administrator of legislative safety to serve as the primary point of contact for members of the general assembly on all matters relating to their personal safety and security and to coordinate, in collaboration with the Colorado state patrol, security and protection for members of the general assembly, employees of the general assembly, and other individuals specified by the executive committee (covered individuals). The administrator of legislative safety performs their duties under the direction and supervision of the executive committee and, with approval of the executive committee, may appoint additional personnel as necessary to perform the functions assigned to the administrator of legislative safety. In fulfilling their duties, the administrator of legislative safety shall coordinate with the Colorado state patrol and may coordinate with local law enforcement agencies and with the sergeants at arms of each house of the general assembly. Sections 2 and 3 change the title of the chief security officer, which each house of the general assembly is authorized to appoint, to the sergeants at arms. Section 2 specifies that each house that appoints sergeants at arms may consult with the administrator of legislative safety in connection with the supervision of the sergeants at arms. Section 4 specifies that the administrator of legislative safety is a peace officer whose authority includes enforcing all laws of the state and who may be certified by the P.O.S.T. board. Section 5 specifies that the Colorado state patrol's jurisdiction includes law enforcement services for the governor's mansion. Existing law requires the state patrol to provide protection for members of the general assembly when they are present in the capitol complex and, under certain circumstances, when they attend functions held elsewhere in the state. Section 6 includes other covered individuals under the state patrol's protection when they are present in the capitol complex. In addition, section 6 clarifies that the state patrol's jurisdiction includes law enforcement services for the capitol complex and requires the state patrol to coordinate its law enforcement efforts in the capitol complex with the administrator of legislative safety. Existing law grants the city and county of Denver jurisdiction to enforce the laws of the state for the security of people and property in the capitol complex. Section 7 clarifies that this authority is in addition to the jurisdiction of the state patrol to enforce the laws of the state in the capitol complex. Sections 8 through 10 address various other security concerns for certain elected officials. All candidate committees, political committees, small donor committees, and political parties are required to register with the secretary of state (secretary) or municipal clerk, as applicable, before accepting or making any campaign contributions. Registration requires the submission of a statement listing, among other items, a street address for the principal place of operations of the committee or party. Section 8 specifies that the address may be a street or mailing address. The secretary is required to make all candidate disclosure statements filed with the secretary available to the public on the secretary's website. Section 9 requires the secretary to redact the candidate's address and other personal information before making a disclosure statement available on the secretary's website and allows the secretary to modify the disclosure form to eliminate the inclusion of personal information. Existing law requires specified elected and appointed state officials to file a financial disclosure statement with the secretary that includes, among other items, the legal description of any interest in real property with a market value that exceeds $5,000. Section 10 eliminates the requirement to include a legal description of the property and replaces it with a requirement to identify the city and county in which the property is located. Section 10 also requires the secretary to redact the address and other personal information of elected officials before posting the disclosure statement on the secretary's website and allows the secretary to modify the disclosure form to eliminate the inclusion of personal information. Section 11 requires a sheriff who provides security for a court to use the recommended standards developed by the judicial security task force created in the act to implement security measures for court facilities. The county sheriff shall, to the extent practicable, maintain one secure, single-point access to a court facility and use magnetometers when the court is in session. The county sheriff shall also verify that an individual who enters a courthouse with a firearm is not prohibited from carrying a firearm in a courthouse pursuant to existing law and maintain a log including specified information regarding each individual who enters a courthouse with a firearm; except that this verification and logging requirement does not apply to peace officers employed in the courthouse by the county sheriff. Sections 12 through 14 modify the assessment and collection of the court security surcharge, and sections 15 and 16 address other judicial security concerns. Under existing law, courts assess and collect a $5 court security surcharge on certain court filing fees ($5 surcharge). The money from the $5 surcharge is deposited in the court security cash fund, which is distributed to counties through grants made by the court security cash fund commission for the counties to use for purposes related to the security of facilities containing a state court or probation office. Section 12 ends the assessment and collection of the $5 surcharge on June 30, 2027, and transfers the balance of the court security cash fund on August 31, 2027, to the court security authority (authority), which is created in the act. Section 13 repeals the $5 surcharge, the court security cash fund, and court security cash fund commission on September 1, 2027. Section 14 creates the court security authority as a special purpose authority. Beginning on July 1, 2027, the authority imposes a $10 court security surcharge ($10 surcharge) on the same court filings on which the $5 surcharge was assessed and collected. The courts assess and collect the $10 surcharge and transmit the surcharge money to the authority and the authority is required to use the money from the surcharge to provide grants to counties for the same purposes for which grants from the $5 surcharge were made. The authority may also use money from the $10 surcharge to provide grants to the state court administrator's office for system-wide security needs. The act creates the court security authority board, which initially consists of the same members that comprised the court security cash fund commission and requires the board to award the grants based on specified criteria. Section 15 creates a judicial security task force in the judicial department to develop recommended standards for security at courthouses and other court and probation facilities. Existing law specifies that an individual commits retaliation against a judge if the individual makes a credible threat or commits an act of harassment, or an act of harm or injury upon a person or property as retaliation or retribution against a judge. Section 16 includes judicial employees in this law. Existing law allows specified individuals, defined as 'protected persons', to request that state or local government officials remove their personal information from records that are available on the internet. Under existing law, it is unlawful to post a protected person's personal information on the internet in certain circumstances. In addition to other modifications to this law, section 17 adds judicial employees, staff of the general assembly, and elected officials to the definition of 'protected person'. Section 17 also establishes civil remedies for a protected person recoverable from a person who is not a state or local government official and who has published the protected person's personal information if the person does not remove the personal information upon request. Section 18 prohibits a person from making the personal information of specified elected officials and an elected official's immediate family publicly available on the internet if the person knows or reasonably should know that doing so will pose an imminent and serious threat to the elected official or the elected official's immediate family. Section 18 also allows an elected official to file a request with a state or local government official to redact the elected official's personal information from records that the state or local government official makes available on the internet. Certain specified parties may access, in certain circumstances, a record that includes information otherwise subject to redaction pursuant to this requirement. Sections 19 through 25 repeal, from each applicable court filing fee, the $5 surcharge that is transmitted to the court security cash fund and implement, for each applicable court filing fee, the $10 surcharge that is transmitted to the authority.(Note: This summary applies to this bill as enacted.)

The act prohibits a lawyer or law firm, in connection with providing legal services concerning a legal right arising in whole or in part in Colorado (legal services), from:Providing any portion of legal fees or revenues to a nonlawyer or an organization that economically participates in the provision of legal services or shares in the profits of legal fees or revenues and is owned or controlled by one or more nonlawyers (alternative business structure);Entering into a financial or contractual arrangement with an alternative business structure, which arrangement relates to providing legal services;Forming an entity recognized under Colorado law with a nonlawyer if any of the activities of the entity consist of providing legal services;Practicing with or in the form of a professional company authorized to provide legal services if a nonlawyer owns an interest in the company or a nonlawyer has the right to direct the judgment of a lawyer; andCompensating a person that provides administrative or nonlegal business services to a lawyer or law firm unless the compensation is not contingent upon a percentage of legal fees or revenues and not determined by reference to recoveries, settlements, or other case outcomes. The act exempts certain arrangements, activities, and organizations from the prohibitions in the act. The act also creates a private right of action that allows the following persons to enforce the prohibitions in the act:A person to whom a lawyer or law firm provides legal services that are alleged to be in violation of the act; andA law firm doing substantial business in Colorado that has suffered or may suffer a loss in revenue due to a violation of the act by another law firm, which law firm doing substantial business is not eligible for recovery of economic damages. A person may seek economic damages, injunctive relief, declaratory relief, and any other relief the circumstances may require for violations of the act. If a court determines that a lawyer, law firm, or other person has violated the act, the court must order the funds received or paid in violation of the act to be disgorged and paid to the state treasurer, except to the extent that the funds are paid as economic damages to a plaintiff. The state treasurer must deposit any disgorged funds into the general fund. The act repeals on September 1, 2029.(Note: This summary applies to this bill as enacted.)

Beginning in state fiscal year 2027-28, the act requires the department of public safety (department) to submit a budget request for community corrections and to include in its budget request information regarding projected community corrections program needs, including certain data points and analysis related to residential and nonresidential bed capacity, the per diem reimbursement rate for each bed type, and other guideposts related to community corrections appropriations. The department must include information on the budget request in its yearly 'SMART Act' hearing.(Note: This summary applies to this bill as enacted.)

Current law requires that, before an individual is permitted to act as a transportation network company (TNC) driver through the use of a TNC's digital network, the individual shall obtain a criminal history record check. The act requires that the TNC:If the TNC has at least 20,000 rides occurring monthly (large-scale TNC) on its digital network, pay for the required criminal history record check for an individual before the individual is permitted to act as a driver;Procure a privately administered criminal history record check for a driver at least once every 6 months after the initial criminal history record check;Share the results of each criminal history record check with the driver who is the subject of the record check; andProcure a privately administered criminal history record check if a person files a complaint against a driver with the TNC or the public utilities commission (commission) regarding specified allegations. The TNC shall pay the costs of the privately administered criminal history record checks. A TNC shall create a deactivation and suspension policy to initiate a review of a driver for deactivation within 7 business days if the TNC is notified through a complaint filed with the TNC or the commission or is contacted by the attorney general's office, a district attorney's office, or a law enforcement agency regarding certain allegations against the driver. A driver who has been deactivated may challenge the deactivation through the TNC's deactivation and suspension policy. The act requires the commission to create a process by rule for sharing information between TNCs regarding the deactivation of drivers. A TNC's deactivation and suspension policy must include meaningful human review of the permanent deactivation of a driver. The act requires a TNC to provide regular safety training to each driver and rider in accordance with rules adopted by the commission. If a person files a complaint against a TNC or a driver, the TNC shall respond to a subpoena or search warrant for information related to the complaint from a court, the attorney general's office, a district attorney's office, the commission, or a law enforcement agency no later than 72 hours after the request is made, unless the subpoenaing party agrees to a different deadline. The act requires the commission to adopt rules on or before June 1, 2028, establishing requirements for a TNC to ensure that a driver or rider may opt in to audio and video recording of each prearranged ride and integrate audio and video recording into the TNC's digital platform. A large-scale TNC shall not charge a fee or increase the cost of a prearranged ride solely on the basis of a rider opting in to audio and video recording of the prearranged ride. The commission shall also adopt rules regarding access to, ownership of, storage of, notification about, and deadlines for the implementation of the audio and video recordings, including different requirements for large-scale and small-scale TNCs. A provision in a contract between a TNC and a driver or rider is declared void as against public policy if the provision attempts or purports to waive specified rights. The act requires that, on or before February 1, 2027, and on or before February 1 each year thereafter, a TNC shall submit specified data related to incidents involving safety and discrimination to the commission, the attorney general, and each member of the general assembly. The act requires a TNC to develop policies to:Prevent imposter drivers, account sharing, and account renting;Prevent sexual assault, physical assault, and homicide against or committed by the TNC's drivers;Prohibit the transportation of an unaccompanied youth who is under 15 years old unless the youth is part of a duly authorized family account;Allow a driver to refuse a prearranged ride to an individual who is not authorized to use the account requesting the prearranged ride;Notify and train drivers and riders of any updates to TNC safety policies;Prohibit drivers from offering, selling, or providing food or beverages that are not factory-sealed to riders;Require drivers to report information regarding a conviction of or a plea of guilty or nolo contendere to specified offenses; andPrevent crimes committed against drivers by riders. A TNC is prohibited from:Altering the rating a rider assigned to a driver or the rating a driver assigned to a rider on a TNC's digital platform;Assigning an automatic or default driver rating that the rider did not assign; orAssigning an automatic or default rider rating that the driver did not assign. A TNC may delete ratings or reviews that are plausibly motivated by fraud or bias. A TNC shall not consider negative ratings or reviews that are motivated by fraud or bias in a review of a driver for deactivation or an internal deactivation reconsideration. A TNC is prohibited from collecting biometric data or biometric identifiers from a driver or rider without first obtaining the consent of the driver or rider. If a TNC collects biometric data or biometric identifiers from a driver or rider, the TNC shall comply with specified provisions of the 'Colorado Privacy Act' regarding biometric data and biometric identifiers. A TNC that violates the act may be assessed a civil penalty of not more than $1,500 per violation.(Note: This summary applies to this bill as enacted.)

The act creates the Colorado behavior analyst licensing board (board) under the direction and supervision of the division of professions and occupations in the department of regulatory agencies. On and after July 1, 2028, an individual is prohibited from engaging in or offering the practice of applied behavior analysis unless the individual is licensed by the board. The board is authorized to license behavior analysts and assistant behavior analysts if they meet the requirements specified by the act and the rules adopted by the board pursuant to the act. An individual who seeks to practice as a behavior analyst or assistant behavior analyst must meet the following requirements:File an application for a license;Have a valid certification in good standing with a certifying entity;Complete a fingerprint-based criminal history record check;Carry professional liability insurance in an amount determined by the board by rule unless working as a public employee covered under governmental immunity; andIf the individual seeks to practice as an assistant behavior analyst, be supervised by a licensed behavior analyst and practice within the scope of practice established by rules of the board. The board may deny or refuse to renew a license, suspend or revoke a license, impose probationary conditions on a license, or issue a cease-and-desist letter or seek injunctive relief against a licensee or an applicant for licensure who has engaged in specified grounds for discipline or unprofessional conduct. The board may also send a licensee a letter of admonition or a confidential letter of concern under certain circumstances. The act exempts specified individuals from the licensing requirements established by the act. An individual who practices or offers or attempts to practice as a behavior analyst or assistant behavior analyst without being licensed pursuant to the act and who is not exempted from licensure commits a class 2 misdemeanor. The board may adopt rules as necessary to implement the act. The regulation of behavior analysts and assistant behavior analysts is scheduled for repeal on September 1, 2031. Before the repeal, the functions of the board in regulating applied behavior analysis are scheduled for review in accordance with the sunset law. The act requires the department of health care policy and financing (state department) to reimburse an applied behavior analysis provider for applied behavior analysis services provided by a behavior technician certified by a certifying entity to a medicaid member with autism spectrum disorder or other conditions for which coverage may be available under state department policies. Subject to federal approval, the state department shall reimburse the applicable applied behavior analysis provider for applied behavior analysis services provided by a behavior technician who is required by the state department to be certified by a certifying entity, but is not certified at the time of services, for services provided during one temporary period of not less than 45 days while the behavior technician is pursuing the certification if specified conditions are met. The department of human services (department) is required to prescribe and publish standards for the licensing and regulation of applied behavior analysis clinics (clinics). The department is authorized to adopt rules concerning specific subjects related to standards for clinics. Clinics are required to comply with specified requirements regarding local government zoning regulations, licensing fees, and qualifications for employees of the clinics. The act changes the definition of 'day treatment center' to 'day treatment facility' and requires that facilities that were not subject to the definition before the effective date of the act but that meet the amended definition submit an application for licensure by the department on or before August 1, 2026 , and become licensed before August 1, 2027.(Note: This summary applies to this bill as enacted.)