Under current law, residential real property that is classified as qualified-senior primary residence real property is subject to a reduced valuation for assessment for property tax years beginning on or after January 1, 2025, but before January 1, 2027. The act ends the qualified-senior primary residence real property classification for property tax years beginning on or after January 1, 2027, and changes related requirements for county assessors, county treasurers, and the property tax administrator so that the classification and all related administrative and reporting requirements end on dates that align with the end of the reduced valuation for assessment. The act changes the state property tax exemption for business personal property, commencing on and after January 1, 2027, by setting the exemption at $58,000, without an adjustment for inflation. The act also sets the reimbursement for property tax losses due to the exemption, for property tax years beginning on and after January 1, 2027, at the reimbursement amount for the 2026 property tax year.(Note: This summary applies to this bill as enacted.)

Under current law, the maximum amount of liability of the petroleum storage tank fund for an individual occurrence of a leak, spill, or release of a petroleum product from an underground storage tank (occurrence) is $2,000,000. The act allows an owner or operator of an underground or aboveground storage tank (owner or operator) to exceed this amount of liability with the permission of the director of the division of oil and public safety (director) and the petroleum storage tank committee (committee). If the director and the committee grant such permission, the director and committee shall establish a new maximum amount of liability per occurrence for the owner or operator. Under current law, all class I, II, and III liquid fuel products must comply with the most current applicable standards of ASTM International. The act allows the director to adopt a rule or issue policy guidance that provides exceptions to specific requirements established in an ASTM standard.(Note: This summary applies to this bill as enacted.)

With regard to the family and medical leave insurance (FAMLI) program, the bill:Defines a neonatal intensive care unit (NICU) for the duration extension that applies to a covered individual who has a child receiving care in a NICU; andExtends the duration of paid FAMLI leave for claims arising on or after January 1, 2027, up to an additional 2 weeks, following the death of a family member for whom a covered individual cared for while using such leave.(Note: This summary applies to this bill as introduced.)

The act requires a volunteer lobbyist to register and file a registration statement attesting they are not being compensated. The act exempts volunteer lobbyists from registration fees. The act provides that the judicial department may designate one individual for the judicial department and one individual for each independent agency in the judicial department who may lobby on behalf of the judicial department or an independent agency in the judicial department (judicial lobbyist). A person designated by a principal executive department to be responsible for lobbying a state official or employee on behalf of the department (legislative liaison), a judicial lobbyist, or an individual who lobbies on behalf of the offices of the governor or lieutenant governor as a member of the governor's cabinet or as a personal staff employee in the offices of the governor or the lieutenant governor (governor's lobbyist) must register with the secretary of state annually. In addition to annually registering with the secretary of state, a legislative liaison, judicial lobbyist, or a governor's lobbyist must file a monthly disclosure statement with the secretary of state (disclosure statement). The act provides that a legislative liaison, judicial lobbyist, or a governor's lobbyist must indicate on the disclosure statement the bill number of any legislation for which they have lobbied or will lobby a covered official and their position regarding the legislation. The legislative liaison, judicial lobbyist, or a governor's lobbyist must update their position on the disclosure statement within 72 hours of a change in position. The act prohibits a statewide elected official or member of the general assembly from being a legislative liaison or governor's lobbyist for a period of 2 years following vacation of office. $91,000 is appropriated from the department of state cash fund to the department of state.(Note: This summary applies to this bill as enacted.)

The act changes requirements for the regional transportation district (RTD) relating to paratransit and accessible transportation, the composition of the board of directors, coordination with the subregional service councils, and reporting requirements. Paratransit and accessible transportation. On or before December 31, 2026, RTD is required to contract with an independent third-party entity for a comprehensive paratransit service study (study) that includes:A needs assessment of the population, needs, and service gaps for riders with disabilities in the district;A cost-benefit assessment;A definition of measurable performance metrics related to access, reliability, equity, and cost-effectiveness;An assessment of opportunities for RTD to collaborate with local and regional partners to address service gaps; Engagement with paratransit users, riders with disabilities, service providers, and other key stakeholders;An assessment of system performance; andAn assessment of barriers for paratransit riders and riders with disabilities to access a low-income fare discount. The study must be completed by June 30, 2027. On or before December 31, 2027, RTD is required to complete, adopt, and begin implementing an accessible transportation service plan that is informed by the study. Composition of RTD board of directors. The act ends the terms of the current 15 elected members of the RTD board of directors (board) on January 1, 2029, and replaces the board with 5 members elected from director districts and 4 at-large appointed members. 5 members constitute a quorum for the new board. Board members serve 4-year terms; except that the new member terms are staggered such that, on January 1, 2031, 4 of the 9 members' terms expire. At the November 2028 general election, 5 new members are elected, 2 of which are elected to 2-year terms. At every general election in an even-numbered year thereafter, the number of members to be elected at the election equals the number of member terms expiring on January 1 of the following year. On or before the day of the November 2028 general election, the governor shall appoint 4 new board members. On or before the day of the November general election in every even-numbered year thereafter, the governor shall appoint 2 new board members to replace the members whose terms will expire the following year. Members may serve up to 2 4-year terms, and any term that lasts for fewer than 2 years does not count towards the member's 2-term limit. On or before September 15, 2027, the office of legislative legal services and the legislative council staff are required to apportion the composition of the board so that the 5 elected directors will represent, to the extent practical, the people of the district on the basis of population. After the federal census in 2030, and after each federal census thereafter, the independent legislative redistricting commission is required to apportion the composition of the board so that the 5 elected directors will represent, to the extent practical, the people of the district on the basis of population. The 4 appointed board members are appointed by the governor with the consent of the senate. Of the 4 members:One member is appointed from a list of at least 3 nominees provided by the Denver regional council of governments;One member must be a current or former member of the union that represents the largest collective bargaining unit of RTD employees; and2 members are appointed at the governor's discretion. The 4 appointed members must represent diverse geographic areas of the district and are collectively required to possess expertise related to public finance, land use and multimodal transportation planning, transit operations, and transit agency programs serving disproportionately impacted communities. The governor may remove an appointed member for malfeasance in office, neglect of duty, failure to regularly attend meetings, or any other cause that renders the member incapable or unfit to discharge the duties of the board. A member to be appointed is required to disclose any potential conflicts of interest prior to confirmation and any conflicts that arise during the member's term to the board. Failure to disclose a conflict, or taking action on a matter in which the member has an undisclosed conflict of interest, constitutes cause for removal by the governor. The board may elect one member as chairperson of the board, one member as chairperson pro tempore of the board, and one or more individuals as secretary and treasurer of the board. The annual salary for an elected or appointed member whose term begins on or after January 1, 2029, is increased from $12,000 to $36,000, and the salary for the board chairperson is 150% of the salary of the other board members. Subregional service council coordination. Beginning in 2027, RTD is required to provide dedicated staff to co-chair and support each subregional service council (council) and must work with council members to identify a local leader to also co-chair each council. Beginning in 2028, the councils are required to make recommendations to the RTD board on:Aligning RTD transit services with local and regional plans;Implementing joint projects to address service gaps;Leveraging existing intergovernmental agreements and projects for expanded service delivery;Identifying strategies to expand funding; andConsiderations of equity, ridership, demand, and long-term regional growth. The RTD board is required to meet at least twice a year to receive recommendations from the councils. Reporting requirements. RTD is required to report to the house of representatives transportation, housing, and local government committee and the senate transportation and energy committee, or their successor committees, on the following:On or before December 31, 2027, progress toward the recommendations made to RTD by the 2025-2026 RTD accountability committee created in Senate Bill 25-161. RTD is also required to submit this report to the governor.On or before January 31, 2027, and on or before each January 31 thereafter: RTD's budget and financial performance;Ridership;The implementation of Senate Bill 25-161, including RTD's progress on delivering the projects identified in its 10-year strategic plan and its comprehensive operational analysis;Aligning with state climate goals; andThe implementation of this act, including RTD's progress on implementing the accessible transportation service plan;On or before January 31, 2028, the study and accessible transportation plan; and Annually beginning in 2028, the recommendations from the councils and RTD's responses to the recommendations. RTD is also required to report this information to the transportation legislation review committee.(Note: This summary applies to this bill as enacted.)

Under current law, if a defendant is found incompetent to proceed and the defendant will not be restored to competency in the foreseeable future, the court is required to dismiss charges against the defendant and the defendant, in limited circumstances, may be referred for certification for short-term treatment through a civil court process. The act maintains the requirement for the court to dismiss the charges against a defendant if the defendant's highest charged offense is among certain misdemeanor offenses, and the act maintains certification for short-term treatment as an option for the defendant. However, if the defendant is unrestorable or the defendant has reached the statutory maximum time permitted to be restored, the act authorizes the district attorney or county attorney (prosecution) to notify the court that the prosecution seeks civil commitment or an enhanced protective placement of a defendant if the prosecution can prove by clear and convincing evidence that the defendant:Has a mental disability or developmental disability;Committed an act that, in the absence of any mental disability or developmental disability, would constitute homicide, a crime of violence, or a felony that constitutes unlawful sexual behavior, and the act is or was charged in a criminal case in Colorado in which competency was raised; and Poses a substantial risk of serious harm to others. If the prosecution seeks civil commitment or an enhanced protective placement, the court is required to stay the order dismissing the defendant's case, set a trial within 91 days after the date the written notice was filed, and order the department of human services (CDHS) to identify an appropriate provider and placement for the defendant in the event a civil commitment or enhanced protective placement is granted. The defendant may stipulate that the court order a civil commitment or enhanced protective placement. If the court finds the prosecution has not met its burden, the court is required to deny the prosecution's request to civilly commit the defendant or order an enhanced protective placement of the defendant; except that the court may consider whether to order other civil proceedings. If the court finds the prosecution has met its burden, the court is required to order the civil commitment or enhanced protective placement of the defendant, place the defendant and issue any related orders, transfer jurisdiction of the civil commitment or enhanced protective placement to an appropriate civil court with jurisdiction, and dismiss the defendant's criminal case. When the court orders the civil commitment or enhanced protective placement, the court shall make a finding of the defendant's primary diagnosis that constitutes the mental disability or developmental disability. The court shall order the defendant civilly committed to the legal custody of CDHS unless the defendant's primary diagnosis is an intellectual and developmental disability (IDD) or a neurocognitive disorder, in which case, the court shall order an enhanced protective placement and legal custody of the defendant to the department of health care policy and financing (HCPF). If CDHS proposes placing the defendant into inpatient care, the court shall order, without further court review, that the defendant be placed into inpatient care at the discretion of CDHS if the court ordered a civil commitment or that the defendant be placed into inpatient care at the discretion of HCPF if the court ordered an enhanced protective placement. If CDHS has not identified an appropriate provider that is willing to accept placement of the defendant, the court shall set a review hearing within 35 days after the order for civil commitment or enhanced protective placement and order CDHS, in consultation with the behavioral health administration (BHA), to identify at least one appropriate provider. Upon receiving jurisdiction of a civil commitment or enhanced protective placement, the act requires the civil court to supervise the civil commitment or enhanced protective placement by notifying the county attorney, appointing an attorney to represent the respondent, and setting a review hearing. At the hearing, the respondent has the right to request modification of the terms of the civil commitment or enhanced protective placement and the right to periodic review, including whether the respondent qualifies for termination of the civil commitment or enhanced protective placement. The court is required to ensure the respondent is placed in the least-restrictive setting adequate to protect the victims and community. If the respondent is not placed into inpatient care at the discretion of CDHS, or if CDHS proposes to move the respondent into or out of inpatient care, the court shall, prior to modifying the civil commitment or enhanced protective placement to change the respondent's provider or placement, review the appropriateness of the proposed provider or placement. The provider charged with the physical care and custody of the respondent is required to submit a report to the court and the parties annually by the date the respondent was civilly committed or ordered into enhanced protective placement unless a substantially similar examination was ordered by the court within the previous 12 months. The act requires the court to terminate the respondent's civil commitment or enhanced protective placement if the respondent no longer poses a substantial risk of serious harm to others or the respondent does not have the applicable disorder or disability that is likely to cause the respondent to be a danger to the respondent's self or a danger to others and the respondent has demonstrated sufficient capacity and willingness to conform their conduct to the requirements of the law. If the respondent does not meet the criteria for termination, the respondent is not entitled to another termination trial within one year after the conclusion of the previous trial. The court shall convert a civil commitment to an enhanced protective placement if the respondent does not meet the criteria for termination but the respondent has a mental health disorder that is an IDD or a neurocognitive disorder, without having any other mental health disorder that is not an IDD or a neurocognitive disorder and that substantially contributes to whether the respondent is a danger to the respondent's self or a danger to others, or is gravely disabled. If the defendant does not meet the criteria for termination and has co-occurring mental health disorders that include an IDD or a neurocognitive disorder, the court may, upon the recommendation of CDHS, convert the civil commitment to an enhanced protective placement. The court shall convert an enhanced protective placement to a civil commitment if the respondent does not meet the criteria for termination and the respondent no longer has an IDD or a neurocognitive disorder that substantially contributes to whether the respondent is a danger to the respondent's self or a danger to others, or is gravely disabled. If the defendant does not meet the criteria for termination and has co-occurring mental health disorders that do not include an IDD or a neurocognitive disorder, the court may, upon the recommendation of CDHS, convert the enhanced protective placement to a civil commitment. Under current law, an emergency mental health hold (M1 hold) may be initiated against a person for not more than 72 hours if the person appears to have a mental health disorder and, as a result of the mental health disorder, appears to be a danger to the person's self or others, or appears to be gravely disabled. A person detained for an M1 hold and transported to an emergency medical services facility or facility designated by the commissioner (facility) of the BHA is required to receive an evaluation as soon as possible after the person presents to the facility. The act authorizes a person who has an M1 hold initiated against them while in confinement to receive an evaluation at the person's place of confinement rather than being transported to a facility. If the person is released from confinement while under an M1 hold, the person responsible for the confinement is required to coordinate with the BHA to transfer the person to a facility. Under current law, if a person under an M1 hold meets the criteria for certification for short-term treatment, the person may be certified for not more than 3 months. Rather than requiring an M1 hold as a prerequisite to short-term certification or certification for long-term care and treatment, the act authorizes a person to be certified if the person:Has been advised of the availability of, but has not accepted, voluntary treatment or with consideration of all reasonably available information, is believed will not remain in voluntary treatment; and By clear and convincing evidence, has a mental health disorder and, as a result of the mental health disorder, the person is a danger to the person's self, a danger to others, or gravely disabled. A person may not be certified for short-term treatment or long-term care and treatment if the person has an IDD or neurocognitive disorder without any other mental health disorder that is not an IDD or neurocognitive disorder and that substantially contributes to whether the respondent is a danger to the respondent's self or a danger to others, or is gravely disabled. If a respondent is certified, the court shall order CDHS to provide care coordination and make diligent efforts to find a provider for the respondent that is willing to hold the certification. The respondent may be certified for long-term care and treatment if the respondent continues to meet the criteria and standards for certification for short-term treatment. The certification terminates when the professional person in charge of the respondent's treatment and the BHA determine the respondent no longer meets the criteria for certification. To terminate a short-term treatment certification less than 30 days after the initial certification, two professional persons are required to individually consult and review the respondent's case and agree that the respondent no longer meets the criteria for certification. A court may order the short-term or long-term protective placement of a person:Who, by clear and convincing evidence, has a neurocognitive disorder;When reasonable grounds exist to believe that the person will not remain in a voluntary treatment program; andWho, by clear and convincing evidence, is a danger to the person's self, a danger to others. The act aligns the provisions for short-term and long-term protective placement with certifications for short-term treatment and long-term care and treatment. No later than October 1, 2027, the act requires CDHS to construct and operate an outpatient treatment facility for adults with behavioral health needs, including adults who are found incompetent to proceed and unlikely to be restored to competency. To implement the act, for the 2025-26 state fiscal year, the act appropriates to CDHS $535,934 from the general fund and $4,777,898 from the capital construction fund. To implement the act, the act makes the following appropriations for state fiscal year 2026-27:$17,802,360 to CDHS from the general fund, of which $242,323 is reappropriated to the department of law and $52,644 to the office of information technology;To the judicial department, $26,296 from the judicial department information technology cash fund and $5,401,437 from the general fund, of which $1,719,409 is for use by the office of state public defender and specified independent agencies;$842,808 to HCPF from the general fund; and$150,000 to the department of law from the general fund.(Note: This summary applies to this bill as enacted.)

The act adds Denver school of science and technology charter schools (DSST schools) in the Denver public schools division of the public employees' retirement association (PERA). The act also adds one voting member to the PERA board of trustees. The added member is to be elected from the Denver public schools division through a Denver public schools division election administered by PERA. The added member replaces a nonvoting ex officio board member from the Denver public schools division, whom the act removes from the board. The act permits PERA members who are employees of DSST schools to purchase service credit for their noncovered DSST employment prior to the act.(Note: This summary applies to this bill as enacted.)

To qualify for an initial special services license as a school counselor, an applicant must hold a master's degree or higher from an accredited institution of higher education. The degree must be in school counseling and require completion of at least 48 graduate semester credit hours.(Note: This summary applies to this bill as enacted.)

An inmate who is serving a sentence to the department of corrections (DOC) for certain lower level criminal offenses, has not incurred a penal discipline violation within a specified time period, and is program compliant is currently eligible to earn 12 days of earned time per month. The act increases eligibility to 14 days per month. An inmate who is serving a sentence for, or who has been previously convicted of, certain higher level criminal offenses, including a felony offense listed in the 'Victim Rights Act', is currently eligible to earn 10 days of earned time per month. The act increases eligibility to 12 days per month. An inmate who completes a milestone or phase of a behavioral health program in an area related to recovery from a condition that contributed to the inmate's underlying offense may be awarded up to 150 days of earned time. The DOC is directed to enact policy changes to incentivize inmates to pursue activities that award earned time. The act creates a working group to make recommendations for a capacity management plan (plan) for the DOC with input from impacted groups. The plan must be informed by strategies to assess prison programming and clinical care, inmate release processes, services for successful release outcomes, prison population management, and prison capacity changes. Members of the house of representatives judiciary committee, the senate judiciary committee, and the joint budget committee may submit in writing to the chair of the working group a request to prioritize specific issues or provide other relevant information. The working group shall submit an interim and a final report to the general assembly, the DOC's certified employee organization, and the governor's office.(Note: This summary applies to this bill as enacted.)

The act prohibits employers from making deductions from the wages or compensation of an employee for personal protective equipment. The act also requires an employer with 500 or more employees who are engaged in the slaughter of livestock or the rendering or packaging of meat to provide its employees reasonable access to restrooms. The division of labor standards and statistics in the department of labor and employment may fine an employer who fails to provide restroom access.(Note: This summary applies to this bill as enacted.)

The act makes multiple changes to procedural requirements for the administration of property tax in 2 broad categories: Deadlines and requirements for transmitting information. Modifications to deadlines. The act modifies property tax-related deadlines as follows:Aligns the regular and late application dates for the qualified-senior primary residence real property classification and the property tax exemption for qualifying veterans with disabilities and their spouses with those for the property tax exemption for qualifying seniors and their spouses. The regular application deadline is July 15, and late applications may be accepted until August 15.Increases from $10,000 to $20,000 the current threshold for a board of county commissioners (board) to recommend, or a county assessor with the approval of a board to settle, an abatement or refund of taxes. The threshold for the board being required to submit recommended abatement applications to the property tax administrator (administrator) for review is similarly increased from $10,000 to $20,000. The board is not required to submit an application to the administrator in the case of an abatement or refund caused by a valuation change made to ensure matching values within the same reassessment cycle.Clarifies the timeline for a petitioner to appeal a decision of the board of county equalization to the board of assessment appeals or submit the case to arbitration;Changes the real property protest deadline from June 8 to June 1;Changes the deadline from June 15 to July 15 for a county assessor to send a notice of valuation of personal property and changes the personal property protest deadline from June 30 to July 31 for a county that uses alternate protest and appeal procedures (alternate procedures) to determine objections and protests for taxable property;Clarifies that a county's use of alternate procedures may apply to real or personal property, or both; andAligns the protest deadline for personal property with the date that county assessors must conclude their hearings on such protests so that both the protest and hearing conclusion dates for personal property are June 30, or, for a county that uses alternate procedures, July 31. Modifications to requirements for transmitting information. The act modifies requirements for transmitting property tax information as follows:Clarifies that a county assessor or the board may transmit a required abstract of assessment, certification of taxes levied, or application for a recommended abatement or refund in excess of $20,000 to the administrator in a paper or electronic format;Reduces the number of copies of an application for a recommended abatement or refund in excess of $20,000 that the board must send to the administrator for review to one;Repeals the requirement that the administrator conduct a public hearing on proposed changes to property tax manuals, appraisal procedures, instructions, and guidelines, which are still required to be reviewed by the advisory committee to the administrator;Requires the administrator to prepare and publish standardized forms, including a letter of authorization, for all levels of property tax appeals;Reduces the number of copies of a notice of determination that an assessor must send to a taxpayer who has objected to the valuation of the taxpayer's property to one; andReduces the number of copies of an abstract of assessment that needs to be prepared to one.(Note: This summary applies to this bill as enacted.)

Current law requires an individual to be at least 18 years old in order to obtain a marriage license; except that a minor who is 16 or 17 years old may obtain a marriage license with judicial approval. The bill repeals this exception, therefore requiring that an individual be at least 18 years old to obtain a marriage license.(Note: This summary applies to the reengrossed version of this bill as introduced in the second house.)

The bill creates the Colorado nuclear workforce development and education council (council) in the Colorado school of mines to help meet growing workforce demand in the nuclear energy sector. The bill establishes a related grant program (grant program) to provide grants to institutions of higher education for the development or expansion of nuclear engineering degree or certificate programs or course offerings. The council shall convene advisory sessions with stakeholders from the nuclear, educational, and workforce development sectors; implement the grant program; and contract with one or more third-party entities for staffing and operational assistance. The council may seek, accept, and expend gifts, grants, and donations for council-related purposes. The state treasurer shall credit the gifts, grants, and donations to the Colorado nuclear workforce development and education cash fund (cash fund), which is created in the bill. The general assembly shall not appropriate general fund money to implement or maintain council operations or grant awards. The council shall convene and begin awarding grants only after the balance of the cash fund reaches or exceeds $500,000 (threshold) . The bill imposes requirements to report to the Colorado commission on higher education and the general assembly about the council's funding sources, grant program implementation, and other uses of the grant program money. If the cash fund balance does not reach the threshold on or before September 1, 2027, the council is repealed and the money in the cash fund is refunded to the grantors or donors. Otherwise, the bill repeals the council, effective September 1, 2033, unless the council is extended following a sunset review.(Note: Italicized words indicate new material added to the original summary; dashes through words indicate deletions from the original summary.)(Note: This summary applies to the reengrossed version of this bill as introduced in the second house.)

Existing law allows voters to circulate a petition for a ballot question requiring a local government to engage in collective bargaining with the fire department for the local government and extend coverage of the 'Colorado Firefighter Safety Act' to firefighters employed by the local government (question). The question may be added to the ballot for any general election, as defined in the 'Colorado Firefighter Safety Act'. The act changes the definition of a general election for the purpose of determining when a question may be added to the ballot to include a coordinated election as defined in the 'Uniform Election Code of 1992'. The act also changes the definition of a general election to refer to a regular municipal election rather than a general municipal election to align the language with other municipal elections law.(Note: This summary applies to this bill as enacted.)

The bill adds individuals and homeowners' associations as eligible recipients of assistance from the natural disaster mitigation enterprise fund. The bill also provides that natural disaster mitigation includes installation of "impact-resistant roofing materials" and other "property-specific mitigation action" and provides definitions of the same.Additionally, the bill creates an income tax deduction for contributions to a catastrophe savings account (CSA), which is a savings account that a homeowner may use to cover the amount of insurance deductibles for claims stemming from hail, wildfire, or a catastrophic wind event, uninsured losses related to the same, and property-specific mitigation actions. The bill also exempts interest earned by CSAs from income tax.(Note: This summary applies to this bill as introduced.)